Am i correct in saying texas did NOT lose in SCOTUS the only thing that was denied was the mitions for relif and not the complaint.
from the short note part of it reads:
where the justices says In my view, we do not have discretion to deny the filing of a bill of complaint in a case that falls within our original jurisdiction. See Arizona v. California, 589 U. S. ___ (Feb. 24, 2020) (Thomas, J., dissenting). I would therefore grant the motion to file the bill of complaint but would not grant other relief, and I express no view on any other issue.
dose that mean they can continue. or what if someone can explain it for us thanks.
