Michael W
Discord ID: 608393248871940133
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I've got a question that maybe someone can help me understand. With PA, I can see how SCOTUS can change the vote results of saying that PA SC was not able to change the laws, only the legislature can, and could potentially invalidate all of the ballots after Nov 3. However, lets say that Michigan and Wisconsin it is determined that there was some sort of fraud, such as ballots being requested/received/counted for people that are deceased. What could SCOTUS do in that aspect? I can see that they would rule that it's illegal to do that and that those ballots are not valid, but would those ballots be segregated enough that they would be able to be identified and removed from the totals? If not, how would that be handled?
Even if it was the state/lower courts that would handle that, I guess I'm also trying to understand how that might happen. Especially if those ballots are not able to be identified other than there are xxxxxx number of ballots that are invalid. There is no way to know for sure what the results of those ballots would be other than maybe a bit of statistics of xx% went to trump and xx% went to biden of ballots of the same time, so lets remove that number from the total count. My concern is wouldn't that potentially invalidate REAL votes by going by statistics only.
@Michele411 I'm fairly sure a judge can rule to break an NDA if there is enough probably cause.
Read the link he posted.
That makes perfect sense.
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I have no opinion on it one way or another. Was just pointing out what was missed.
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