As simple as that

I mean this is common sense dude

That would be like calling the industrial working class reactionary. Again, this was a nation evolving out of semi-feudalist social relations. The peasantry was a class of agrarian laborers. Just because you're a sperg-lord that only thinks of it as an insult and not an actual social class, doesn't mean it's not a valid socioeconomic descriptor.

No it would be like calling peasantry reactionary.

The industrial working class and peasantry are not the same.

No fucking shit. How is it reactionary?

One chooses to work that way one doesn't have a choice and grows up that way.

I just told you.

Peasantry

like in the medieval times

lol

No, you didn't. Just because the term is used as an insult in the West doesn't take away from the fact that it was a well-established social class in feudal and semi-feudal nations.

dude no wonder communist leaders end up trying to have a dictatorship or monarchy lol

I did

I never said it was because it was an insult

Then how is it reactionary?

Because "peasantry"

Peasantry is reactionary

It's pretty self explanatory tbh

Well I guess that's if you actually studied in school of course

Again, you're assuming that in every context it has a negative connotation. It doesn't. The peasantry was a social class in feudal and semi-feudal nations. The Russian peasants never took offense to the socioeconomic terminology and even had political movements organized around peasants rights.

It does

What makes it reactionary

Peasantry

No, it doesn't. You're talking out of your ass. Your logic doesn't add up. Admit you're mistaken and move on.

what about peasantry makes it reactionary

A peasant is a pre-industrial agricultural laborer or farmer, especially one living in the Middle Ages under feudalism and paying rent, tax, fees or services to a landlord.

tru

Okay? And?

"especially one living in the Middle Ages"

What

"middle ages"

Hm

Yeah, the peasantry was widespread in the middle ages and was virtually non-existent in Europe post-industrial revolution. They still existed in the East, however.

Which is rather primitive

As many places like Russia still had not done away with feudalism entirely.

Gee I wonder why it was practically non-existent once they got more advanced while the commies in the east didn't.

It sure is a mighty mystery for me

First of all, it was the commies that transformed a semi-feudal backwater into an industrialized world power. So you should really fact check yourself before you wreck yourself.

Yet they still had peasantry around lmao

tells you alot about communism if you actually think about it tbh