most recessions prior to 1945 saw deflation in CPI

Yeah, S&D was very flexible back then

Marginalism was right at one point

open market operations are a form of gov intervention

No they aren't

and are supported by virtually all keynesians

OMO's are just private central bank intervention

Yeah, those are monetarists not Keynesians

they just say they aren't enough

I mean literally that's true though

because Keynes hated central bank action for recessions

Friedman loved it

I still laugh at lolberts who blame Keynes for the mess we have now

not really friedmanites believe in inflation targeting, not countercyclical monetary policy

Friedman was a retard for rejecting ABCT

Yes they do

LOL

ABCT is false now

It's a defense for usury

I'm usurypilled

he did, where?

Feder's Theory of Interest <:chad:793675087064465449>

In his general theory and every other literature he had

He saw central bank action as barley demand responding for recessions

Keynes believed in spurring investment which open market operations precisely do

no you aren't

are you ?

No, he believed in socializing investment which is basically debt-free money to the government.

well I obviously dont think all interest is usury or whatever

Basically fiscal policy but no national debt

all interest is wrong and anti-bible

but I think what hammer and sickle is saying is that ABCT doesnt describe the nature of modern business cycles which I agree with but thats because of the government/central planners/private banks or whatever we want to call them

'hammer and sickle'

My emoji isn't hammer and sickle but call me cash plz

hammer and hammer

Lel

i assumed it was meant to represent a hammer and sickle

Austrians got lucky and only described 1 RECESSION throughout history

and that was the early 20's one

ive also seen empirical evidence to suggest it accurately described the great depression

No