Is Robert planning on doing a show tonight?

So the evidence has been gathered by the FBI and state law enforcement then given to the FBI.

DOJ

If an attorney knowingly lies is that not a violation of ethical standards.

Depends to Who. A Spouse is Fair Game.

Like what Sydney Powell's doing.

Or is it permissible when not in court.

I think she believes it

She would have to be insane.

The tails are nuts and getting nuttier by the day.

Good Faith. Representing a Client with Zeal. Have to show Criminal Intent.

I suppose many things are possible, but.

She doesn't embarrass easily.

An Attorney can mislead the Public.

Not in Court Though.

I guess that actually happens all the time.

Public being defined as people who consume media.

exactly ... Giuliani press conference versus Giuliani in court the previous day

The Police can actually Lie to a Suspect.

I do know that.

But don't dare wrongly recall to the FBI

Apparently there's a knowingly willfully misleading threshold.

Good luck proving that.

Yes. The Court of Public Opinion has no Rules of Evidence or Procedure.

Material Fact and Knowingly and Willingly.

and now half the Court of Public Opinion doesn't trust the actual Courts where there are rules and evidence is judged based on these rules ... not a good sign

Average folks just don't have the financial wherewithal to fight the government, all the Justice one can buy.

Who has time to sit in federal jail for extended periods of time to prove a point?

Standing is a Magic Rule made by Lazy Judges. IMHO

I would like to discuss this in detail because I'm now tending towards the opposite view ... hang on and I'll repost what I posted on @Uncivil Law discord

@William Dinan here you go: okay caveat this with not a lawyer but here's the text of the SCOTUS order: "The State of Texas’s motion for leave to file a bill of
complaint is denied for lack of standing under Article III of
the Constitution. Texas has not demonstrated a judicially
cognizable interest in the manner in which another State
conducts its elections. All other pending motions are dismissed
as moot." and here's a link discussing standing under section 2 article III of the US Constitution where you find this: "Although the Court has been inconsistent, it has now settled upon the rule that, “at an irreducible minimum,” the constitutional requisites under Article III for the existence of standing are that the plaintiff must personally have: 1) suffered some actual or threatened injury; 2) that injury can fairly be traced to the challenged action of the defendant; and 3) that the injury is likely to be redressed by a favorable decision" my uneducated guess is that one or more of those three don't apply https://law.justia.com/constitution/us/article-3/20-substantial-interest-standing.html

it’s real, but we haven’t seen ‘the rebuttal’ or response to these findings

SCOTUS should have taken the Case because of Original and Exclusive Jurisdiction. Had a Hearing if the Respondents Filed A Motion for Dismissal on Summary Judgment.

next paragraph in SCOTUS order: "Statement of Justice Alito, with whom Justice Thomas joins:
In my view, we do not have discretion to deny the filing of a
bill of complaint in a case that falls within our original
jurisdiction. See Arizona v. California, 589 U. S. ___
(Feb. 24, 2020) (Thomas, J., dissenting). I would therefore
grant the motion to file the bill of complaint but would not
grant other relief, and I express no view on any other issue." ... grant the motion but not grant other relief (Thomas and Alito)?

Not only Original. It is Exclusive. No place to Appeal.

okay back to standing and how does this principle play out? "3) that the injury is likely to be redressed by a favorable decision" ... so after they declined the PA appeal, did they then conclude that whatever constitutional issue there was a redress would not change the outcome ... PA's own election website shows the count absent of votes turned after election day

For At least the first 100 Years of Federal Jurisprudence we had no Rule or Procedure for "Standing". I can't find that Principle anywhere in the US Constitution or even Federalist Papers.

so how did it arise? that 3rd part is interesting to me because it goes right along with the lines of what @RobertGrulerEsq has been saying about the remedy has to fit the alleged harm ...

Standing and Cause of Action are two very different things.

well did one get pushed into the other? curious

This is not a State Law Question IMO. It it an US Constitutional Issue solely dealing with the Electors Clause.