Message from @Deleted User
Discord ID: 496793401740492810
Or multiple though
XD
Women can get sex more easily. which contributes in my opinion.
>if you're attracted you consent
>what's a viagra
I get what you mean
But then child send would be legal
By that logic
?? So she has to force feed the man a viagra first?
>nobody slips drugs into people's drinks ever
If a 90 yr old man had intercourse with a 12 yr old boi it is plausible for him to get an erection
So if a woman is aroused not rape?
can you slip viagra into a drink?
Yes
Are you sure about that
So I don’t think that should be a reason
There's like a million prank vids
whats the chemical composition of viagra
Of idiots giving their friends bonerdrank
Also in the one example the woman was force feeding viagra to the guy.
So what I'm seeing here is for it to be classified rape
1. The woman must be armed
2. The woman must first slip a viagra into his drink??
im betting close to 0
Wot
Gtg *sleep* if u catch my drift
No, to be classified as rape
>man doesn't consent to sex
>sex is had
Chas
*cyas
Arousal is not consent
How do I get 🅱erified?
Arousal is not consent <:TimThink:482277772497125378>
Why?
You can have a conflict of interests
many women who have been raped admitted to being aroused. still rape
>get turned on by someone
>decide you don't want to do it and say so
>they have sex with you anyway
Why would this be okay?
You can arouse men against their will, even without viagra.
Im not sure any of this is on the same level as forced penetration of a woman
Statutory rape is another case.
I wonder how many men have been legitimately raped by women?
not just #metoo i was having sex but then I didnt want to
I don't know.
And we won't know until the reporting is objective and the same for men as it is for women.