Message from @Aki
Discord ID: 523914879468568587
Only people that subscribe to Pewdiepie can claim to be 14 yrs old
prove your assertion
there's a difference between evidence and argument, u do realize that right? @Stern
Are you familiar with Zimbabwe?
@AdorableStormtrooper ask the other guy, idc
yeah
@Stern or were you dropped head first and only linguistic skills you have are those playing with nursery toys can get you
the farms weren't confiscated to start a famine, that was just a consequence
"Michael Ellman argues that, in addition to deportations, internment in the Gulag camps and shootings (see the law of spikelets), there is evidence that Stalin used starvation as a weapon in his war against the peasantry.[92] He analyses the actions of the Soviet authorities, two of commission and one of omission: (i) exporting 1.8 million tonnes of grain during the mass starvation (enough to feed more than five million people for one year), (ii) preventing migration from famine afflicted areas (which may have cost an estimated 150,000 lives) and (iii) making no effort to secure grain assistance from abroad (which caused an estimated 1.5 million excess deaths), as well as the attitude of the Stalinist regime in 1932–33 that many of those starving to death were "counter-revolutionaries", "idlers" or "thieves" who fully deserved their fate."
so when a system eradicates a class of people who have generations worth of farming knowledge and replaces them with people who do not - what do you think happens?
thank you
@Stern are you going to make an argument?
now we can actually talk about the evidence
So what now?
we talk about the gold blockade
@Stern are you going to make an argument?
it is just that: (i) exporting 1.8 million tonnes of grain during the mass starvation (enough to feed more than five million people for one year),
seems to be preety conclusive
All the western nations stopped accepting gold as payment for foreign goods and required all imports to be paid for with grain
but muh collectivization had nothing to do with it
@Stern are you going to make an argument?
this grain exported was being used to pay for industrialization and the buildup of railways that would allow for better transport of raw materials/food
```this grain exported was being used to pay for industrialization and the buildup of railways that would allow for better transport of raw materials/food```
where's the evidence? @Stern
if you look at the amount of grain exported in the years before the famine, the exports drastically decrease in 1932 when the famine starts
Witch doesn't change the fact that it conttributed to mass starvation.
@AdorableStormtrooper just a sec I'll post it
it's almost as if rapid industrialization is innately destructive or something and exacerbating the effects by eradicating the food production class is utterly retarded
that's the argument
@Stern so the exports decline post collectivization, wew lad
they had to pay for the foreign goods
>intentional eradication of farmers
>not intentional
never could have guessed that
raw mental gymnastics
@Alois Hello and welcome