wait I have to read this whole discussion first, from start

also if you're a CI, I am not even gonna take you seriously in the first place lmfao

I am a christian identiterian

LMAO

indo-europeans descend from japheth

@Uncle Zoob so, since you can't refute anything I said it can be concluded that you don't truly understand this subject and will grasp at any straw, no matter how far fetched (like uralics invading india) so as to not confront the fact that japheth's descendants conquered south asia by the grace of god

He means the Scythians

Who were indeed genetically Uralic

The Scythians also mixed with the Iranians

Hence the Yamnayan relation

Because the Scythians themselves were closely related to (but not descended from necessarily) the Yamnua culture

Yamnaya*

@Smackface define genetically uralic

The Scythians are one of a number of Steppes horde groups dating back to, iirc, 2300BC

Might be 2100

They settled in the Urals

nah, scythians date back to just 900 bc

Much like several other Steppes horde cultures

also they were mixed

with east asians and southwest asians

to some extent

No, they're given only East Asian and Yamnaya-related ancestry, that's it

Unless you have some other source to disprove this

https://www.nature.com/articles/ncomms14615

But yeah, I think it was the Vedas that recorded a Scythian invasion that essentially ended with Scythian integration into the upper castes of Indian society, hence the Yamnaya connection, because so far I've seen no other explanation for the presence of Yamnayan blood in Indian ancestry, as they never settled anywhere close to India

the areas those samples were taken from were all pretty far north from transoxiana (which scythia also encompassed) so that's no surprise

@Smackface yamnaya didn't, but the descendants of proto-indo-iranians did

scythians probably had some genetic influence on india, but I doubt that it's because of them that R1a is nowadays such a prevalent Y-DNA lineage in south asia

Proto-indo-iranians are literally considered a hypothetical by geneticists and archaeologists

Hell, the concept of proto-indo-european itself comes from some sections of the Vedas having weird grammar that *kinda sorta looks like something a Caucasus culture /might/ have spoken*

R1a is, by standard definitions, over 20,000 years old

that's not how comparative linguistics work

Linguistics a genome do not make

R1a is 20,000 years old, but R1a1a1 isn't

and R1a1a1 encompasses 99% of modern R1a lineages

including the ones in South Asia

And the oldest sampled R1a1a1 is from Ukraine

R1a1a1 is a mere 5,500 years old

And perfectly matches with how the Indo-European expansion is dated

R1a1a* is 5k years old, and is also the precursor to R1a1a1b2 which is what 10-40% of "Indo-European speakers" possess

R1a1a1 is 8600 years old but all modern carriers of it descend from a man who lived about 5500 years ago