Message from @Joywolf
Discord ID: 654723038046322724
no
Ignore him and stick to the point with spergerger
otto just spergs on me about me being jewish, materialistic, and ignores any point thats made
also
are u unironically conflating gods desires with the desires of man?
or just doesnt grasp it
@Spergerger two things
1: youd have to make an argument for there being a difference between the two
2: then youd have to show what is the *same* about them that makes them both a desire
3: then youd have to show that the difference takes away concern of potentiality
3 things
so unless you can make this distinction, im inclined to think of them as the same for all intents and purposes
So you are more less concerned that God has behaviors with the materialistic world, effectively denying his divinity.
are you asking me whether gods nature and mans nature are different?, really?
@Spergerger read what i wrote
Clarify your argument, because I was not here for most of it.
obviously theyre different in a hypothetical sense @Spergerger
but
"but"
"hypothetical"
when we use words to describe god, you cant say it means something different for god without explaining what the difference is
which means they share something in common
So you’re making a case on the inexplicable nature of God?
@Enkrum this is a continuation of last nights debate with blueroad. The question is, if god has desires, which necessitates potentiality by the definition of desire (as explained above) than how can he be Pure actuality
man has desires in this way because he is not omnipotent obviously so there is potential for him to be out of accordance with his desires
god does not have this for obvious reasons
the example you gave made no sense
you have yet to give a coherent example
I’m fairly certain Thomas Aquinas explained this in his thesis.
i cannot see any instance in which god is not in accordance with his desires
Regarding the topic of potentiality.
yes but he didnt address this point because its not really an argument tbh
@Spergerger he is not in accord with his desires if his desire is for us to do the right thing and we're not doing it
i dont see how you can ignore this
lol
it doesnt matter whos the subject of his desire
its still his desire
@Spergerger Of course, because he’s omnipotent. What we think of desires correlating to potentiality is our material worldview of it. We cannot effectively depict the exactness of God’s desires for the world, but we ultimately know that he is in accordance for them.
no
thats wrong
he desires us to choose to do the right thing
if we cannot choose then he would actually be out of accordance
am i missing something, because i keep repeating the same argument, and dont feel like theyre even grasping us
but you seem to think that god didnt intend to give free will or somthn
@Spergerger did god desire to give us free will?
at some point, we didnt have free will, so he was out of accord with that desire and had the potential to be in accord with it