Message from @Joywolf
Discord ID: 654722642921652245
lemme restate
material jew
see if u can think of just one more
just one other example
needs a material god
p1: desire means that theres a state of affairs that someone can *potentially* be in or out of accord with
lmao
no
Ignore him and stick to the point with spergerger
otto just spergs on me about me being jewish, materialistic, and ignores any point thats made
also
are u unironically conflating gods desires with the desires of man?
or just doesnt grasp it
@Spergerger two things
1: youd have to make an argument for there being a difference between the two
2: then youd have to show what is the *same* about them that makes them both a desire
3: then youd have to show that the difference takes away concern of potentiality
3 things
so unless you can make this distinction, im inclined to think of them as the same for all intents and purposes
So you are more less concerned that God has behaviors with the materialistic world, effectively denying his divinity.
are you asking me whether gods nature and mans nature are different?, really?
@Spergerger read what i wrote
Clarify your argument, because I was not here for most of it.
obviously theyre different in a hypothetical sense @Spergerger
but
"but"
"hypothetical"
when we use words to describe god, you cant say it means something different for god without explaining what the difference is
and why you use the same word at all
which means they share something in common
So you’re making a case on the inexplicable nature of God?
@Enkrum this is a continuation of last nights debate with blueroad. The question is, if god has desires, which necessitates potentiality by the definition of desire (as explained above) than how can he be Pure actuality
man has desires in this way because he is not omnipotent obviously so there is potential for him to be out of accordance with his desires
god does not have this for obvious reasons
the example you gave made no sense
you have yet to give a coherent example
I’m fairly certain Thomas Aquinas explained this in his thesis.
i cannot see any instance in which god is not in accordance with his desires
Regarding the topic of potentiality.
yes but he didnt address this point because its not really an argument tbh
@Spergerger he is not in accord with his desires if his desire is for us to do the right thing and we're not doing it
i dont see how you can ignore this
lol
it doesnt matter whos the subject of his desire