Message from @Deleted User
Discord ID: 322030814265344000
scripture is obv infallible
but it's interperation
what is
interperation of scripture
What is your point?
The interperation of scripture, how do we make interperation infallible?
Well..
you can't
by definition
Like, there are points in the text where it is pretty obvious
Why not use an Eccumenial Council <:thinkHD:306271252254031873>
And you can't weave around it
Well yeah
We have the nicene creed
also, who dictates what Books belong in the Bible?
And we have the Westminister confession of faith
Well the early councils decided that didn't they man
We have used what was used since then haven't we
For almost 2000 years
Ok
The bible in its current 66 books form came to be over many years very early on in the church bro
I mean unless you have some greater insight into the matter
I'd love to hear
But who allowed that?
You're asking a pretty broad question that has been covered at lengths in varous books by people way more knowledgable of the subject than you or me man
I'm curious, what about yourself and your background man
You said you're orthodox
Actually no, wasn't it Eccumenial Councils?
and idk what you want from me, I'm Orthodox, yeah
ok
Well um, actually after having done some reading, i don't really know you can point to a specific point in history where suddenly bam we had the new testament. It was a historical process or development.
actually it took a couple of hundred years to get Revelations in
But for the really councils in use by the eastern church it was the septuagint
because greek was still relatively common
what does a translation have to do with anything?
ok
So, because most of the world at the point in history around the mediteranean was greek speaking
The Septuagint was the greek translation of the old testament (including the Torah)
This included several deutro-canonical books