Of course... that is the first time the court ruled that way... if we use the logic they used to apply it then technically we could say that it applied to the States after the 14th Amendment was ratified..... but the SCOTUS just had not yet ruled on it
If the SCOTUS said that the 2nd Amendment applies to the States via the 14th Amendment... then obviously it applied the moment the 14th was ratified... they court just did not have a case come before them until 2010
Well... on that particular issue (the first 10 Amendments applying to the States) that was pretty roundly agreed upon. They didn't really like it that they didn't apply. You can tell that the SCOTUS really WANTED to apply them to the States which is why they came up with the Doctrine of Incorporation.
Yeppers... totally agree and so did the Court. I personally think the Court was right and as the Amendments were written especially when looking at the entire document the first 10 Amendment simply did not apply to the States.
They really really WANTED to start making sure that the States did not go all crazy nazi (before nazis existed) and protect the people a bit more
Well that is a matter of opinion.... It is true that the Federal Constitution is the floor as to rights so a State can give you MORE freedom than does the US Constitution but they can't take them away.
I just don't know of any laws that currently exist in any states that does away with any US Constitutional rights.
Eh? It literally suggests they intended to limit state power as well with the constitution, hence specifically saying 'as long as they're in line with the constitution'
The powers not delegated to the United States by **the Constitution**, nor **prohibited by it** to **the States**, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
