according to who lmao

it wasn't invalid for any of the European powers

it stood as the law for over 300 years

now it's invalid?

It was done to end endless wars in Europe not to dethrone the rightfully monarch.

He wasn't dethroned

he was King of Spain

Yeah they are all dethroned now

>arguing about European rule instead of discussing about how we fix our own countries issues. <:really:453005408064241674>

okay?

and?

yeah they are

doesn't change the laws

Which wasnt the original intent.

doesn't matter what intent was LOL

They are all pretenders.

he renounced ALL legal claims to the FRENCH throne by himself and his heirs to the end of time

that was agreed upon and signed into law by all European powers

therefore it stands as law

Check out @DSApacito’s Tweet: https://twitter.com/DSApacito/status/1072603050202804226?s=09

The revolution ended any rightfully claim to the throne due to the end of continuity of it.

Every unelected ruler is a "pretender", heck even the elected ones pretend to care about the plebs...

LOL

revolution is valid now?

but legal treaty isn't?

No its not valid

Revolution worked out well for us.

okay bud

the dude is of the same line that renounced all claims by legal treaty

he can claim it all he wants

but it is not a legal claim anymore

I have just as good claim as he does

We iz kang? 🤔

objectively you don't have as good a claim as he does

There is no legal claim to the throne it doesnt exist. If he was installed as a monarch it woundnt be invalid either though.

You would have a better argument if the French Monarchy was still a thing

yeah he renounced it (legally, with due process), but he's actually french and of the line. none of us are

thats way different than the argument you were making earlier

@Sam Southern - TN by renouncing legal claim it doesn't matter how close by blood he is he has no legal claim

He has more of right to the throne because of his noble birth

lol I'm not arguing legal claim, he has a *better* claim than you or any of us do