Yet Catholics are tolerant of Orthodox.

Not in that sense

They don't believe that catholics are doomed(going to hell), but their hardships befall to them because of the papacy.

From both sides have been made movements to calm the winds, especially with the Pope you guys had in 2001 and the winds are calmer

because of him trying to get on the good side of Orthodoxism

It's still not possible for a Catholic to receive communion in Eastern Orthodox church as far as I know though

In the future maybe who knows maybe Eastern and West will have a communion

Catholic Rule: Catholics can take communion in an Orthodox Church, Orthodox can take communion in a Catholic Church

Orthodox Rule: Catholics cannot take communion in an Orthodox Church; Orthodox cannot take communion in a Catholic Church

@Deleted User @Deleted User that’s my understanding of original sin as well. We didn’t commit the sin ourselves, so in that sense we aren’t guilty of it, but we do suffer the consequences of the original sin (i.e. we die)

To cause the schism... did the pope try to exert his power/authority over the east and they pulled an Anglican move and just said “lol no, we’ll be our own pope”?

Sorta kinda

Normans took southern Italy, which had belonged to the ERE

Pope asked for help from the emperor

So the emperor got an idea for east and west to fight together

But there was a guy who wanted to be Pope, whose letter was included with that

Pope told him no, I'm Pope, not you

So wannabe pope excommunicated the messenger, and the messenger excommunicated him

And then with the Massacre of the Latins, the 4th Crusade, etc made it worse

Probably in 1054 nobody really cared about this and it didn't seem like a big deal or very permanent

@Deleted User thank you for that article about leavened bread. I am now okay with leavened bread for Orthodox Communion.

Eastern Catholic use leavened bread

It's not a matter of faith, both have validity and spiritual basis

Byzantine Rite also don't use the filioque

What’s filioque?

Also... I forgot to ask for clarity on what was meant by the immaculate conception. I know Mary was a virgin before, during, and after birth. After birth, meaning she “remained a virgin” after Jesus came out of her at the minimum. Was there some other part of IC I’m missing?

Immaculate Conception means that Mary was conceived immaculately to save her from original sin so that she would be made ready to give birth to Jesus.

Now if this is true, then why doesn't God make everyone ready the same as Mary was? Or even Christ.

Why can't Christ just be conceived immaculately like Mary was? There are so many questions regarding it, and Orthodox Christians reject this.

Luke 2:24 is evidence that she had to be consecrated as well after giving birth.

Read Leviticus 12:8

And then read Luke 2:24

Unless @Deleted User can accurately rebuttal this

Oh... as in Mary was born without original sin, so she could give birth to a sinless Jesus. Is that what you’re saying?

Jesus came to fulfill the law, not abolish it. That was part of the law from Moses to offer the sacrifice after giving birth.

Doesn’t necessarily contradict her being sinless.

I know.

You probably don’t know this, because you don’t have kids, but women bleed a lot after giving birth. They sent us home with a bunch of adult diaper type things to catch all the blood and stuff that comes out after a baby come out of you.

oof

The woman being “unclean” has a lot more to do with physical health and hygiene than it does spiritual cleanliness.

True.

They didn’t exactly have period pads and disposable diapers 🤣