etc.
No but the aristocrats
And servants of lords
Priests fleeced money. simple.
Yes
none of these lnguages had written language
Oh and the clergy
Did they need?
they literally *couldnt* know how to read and write
because there was *no reading or writing in their language*
đź’¤
What period we talking about lmao
Runes were also a thing
Texts have existed since mesopotamia
runes arent really a means of reading an writing
Yes they are
Uhh
@Osbornia ok so right
no no
i meant
they are a complete alphabet
runes
are not
exactly a commonplace writing
They aren't meant for commonplace use
your average peasant isnt going to engrave a fucking rock with runes
anyways to answer your question osbornia
@Osbornia the answer is mesopotamia lol
look at it
Stone tablet
how many europeans come from mesopotamia?
basically none
Sargon did.
most people in europe in the middle ages were barbarians
an average peasant may still buy a cooking book though
from the steppes or northern wastes
we even have math homework from babylon
none of whom had a written language
and even the few that did
the language was solely the domain of the priesthood
Not really what do they have to cook that they don't already have?
