they couldnt read LATIN, thats why they were iliterate
most languages in the middle ages didnt even have written languages
lol
...
The printing press was just mass reproduction
LoL indeed.
you think the serbian peasants could read?
the russian peasants?
Pre-printing press there were still educational reading materials manufactured in the form of keratin-laminated fabrics mounted on mirrorlike handles
the nordic ones?
polish?
etc.
No but the aristocrats
And servants of lords
Priests fleeced money. simple.
Yes
none of these lnguages had written language
Oh and the clergy
Did they need?
they literally *couldnt* know how to read and write
because there was *no reading or writing in their language*
đź’¤
What period we talking about lmao
Runes were also a thing
Texts have existed since mesopotamia
runes arent really a means of reading an writing
Yes they are
Uhh
@Osbornia ok so right
no no
i meant
they are a complete alphabet
runes
are not
exactly a commonplace writing
They aren't meant for commonplace use
your average peasant isnt going to engrave a fucking rock with runes
anyways to answer your question osbornia
@Osbornia the answer is mesopotamia lol
look at it
Stone tablet
