Message from @Flat Earth PhD
Discord ID: 655138766758871041
@Deleted User mb, 2000 years ago
@Deleted User 2nd century ad
it was kept in secret until Moses published it
The Zohar was supposedly discovered being used as wrapping for fish from the market
it should be. its a sinister ideology that will lead to the justification of a one world religion down the line
Big pieces of it are like if someone wrote the avengers with historical characters from different times and places
Like if a British story had Alfred the great hanging out with Queen Victoria and Lancelot
Moses deleon said that it was passed down generation by generation starting with it's creator, Shimon
We know from the geography in it that it was probably written in medieval Spain
I'm not arguing who published it first
Moses Deleon, the guy who published, ascribed the work to Shimon
who dated back to 2nd century ad
and said that it was passed down generation by generation by fear of getting persecuted if it was ever published to the masses back in the roman times
romans weren't very accepting of jews
@rivenator12113 as the post you shared also says, it mentions things after the Talmud. It is necessarily post-Talmudic. The Talmud was written in the Middle Ages.
Again, you got your history wrong. It got published in the middle ages but it was not written in the middle ages. Not a very hard concept to grasp, publish != creation
the reason it couldn't be available to the public was fear of getting persecuted so it was kept secret
new horizon footage hot off the press
now at 180,000 feet 🙂
its coffin is flat tho
LMAO
@rivenator12113 again, that is not accurate. It references events that happened in the Middle Ages and references the Talmud. It was written in the Middle Ages.
When do you think it was written?
Did you read the article you posted? It says all this.
whatever you do...be sure to keep arguing and ignore the dead flat horizon at 180,000 feet.
and keep bring up nonsense about sun movements.....gravity.....seismic waves.....
“...together with the circumstance that it refers to historical events of the post-Talmudical period...”
cause it matters so much that some bs from way back then was the start of all your disbelief and well you have to get the order right about who threw the first punch and which punch was the best one
@Deleted User https://www.bbc.co.uk/religion/religions/judaism/texts/talmud.shtml are you really saying that the talmud was composed in the middle ages? where are you getting this from?
never mind that the victor or oppressor's told the history we just going to ignore that fact and just keep going
@Deleted User every search says from 1st century ad to 6th century ad. nowhere close to the middle ages. where are you looking for that pseudo history?
Maybe I’m thinking of the Mishnah as well
i had some guy the other day tell me that the sumerians were round earthers, pseudohistorians are on the rise
My mistake- does not invalidate my point however
As the article you posted said, 2nd-5th century
So when the other article you posted says post-Talmudic, that means 5th century onward
Either way, it puts its creation well after classical Greece as we discussed earlier, and well after the “2000 years ago” number you cited