Well done @Veritas, you just advanced to level 8!

Matrilineal lines were automatically discounted

Yeah

It would have to be patrilineal

King James I & VI was related to the English throne patrilineally from the 1300s

James I of England and VI of Scotland for whoever reads this after and doesn't understand

Well that's how he inherited the throne

Yeah

There were literally no heirs left

If James died

The English royal line would've ended

But yh

Wonder what they would have done in such a case

I guess every man for himself at that point

It's happened maybe 3 times

With no heir at all

So what happened then?

They've been forced to look at the matrilineal line

Once in the 1200s

Then again in the 1200s

Then in the 1300s

After that one of the kings had so many children they wouldn't have to search

He created 2 royal houses from how many children he had

House Lancaster and house york

Which merged to become house Tudor in the 1500s

Pretty sure it would have been impossible to have so many kids you'd create two royal houses because they'd all still be your house

But I don't know much about the War of the Roses tbh because it is so damn complicated

@The State the king got married thrice

And had kids with all his wifes

All those kids were sons

They had sons of their own

Yeah but they would all inherit his name not his wife's

Yeah

So how would that create two houses?

Because one of them changed their name

When they became Duke of York

And another Duke of Lancaster

Surnames weren't that popular back then in England

It's fairly complicated

But if the current queen hadn't changed the law in 2013

Then princess Charlotte would've been somewhere like 30th in line to the English throne