the Paris Commune did not rule France

Because it failed due to starvation because Paris couldn't produce enough food to sustain itself.

there was a national government with an army, which invaded a Commune which was against the government

most if not all cities have that attribute

you're really saying very little

I would even say many countries have that attribute

Yeah, you couldn't grow enough food in paris to feed everyone in paris.

if countries didn't import food, lots of people would starve

that's regardless of economic system

Most cities have small communes that still benefit from the capital built by those outside the commune

The idea of a commune couldn't exist without piggybacking off of the bourgeoisie

The Paris Commune failed because of infighting, lack of food, destroyed ifrastructure, rampant desease and poor management.

how about the entirity of Europe being against it?

You mean like Germany?

and France

and even though they weren't involved, the other powers as well

He meant the 3rd reich

Russia, Britain, Austria-Hungary, etc.

Those powers had nothing to do with the Paris Commune.

because it was destroyed too quickly

.....

It failed because none of the people involved were actually proletariat

they were still against it because the success of the Paris Commune would be a challenge to those in power

that's why everyone invaded the Soviet Union during its formation as well

Except that never happened, ever.

look at how long the U.S. was at war with Vietnam

or the embargo of Cuba

Now you're all over the place.

the success of another system is a challenge to those in power

Who invaded the USSR in 1922?

jews did

jews did

many countries did

for example the U.S.

The US didn't invade the RSFSR

The point is, that the Paris Commune FAILED by its own hand.

but look at how many countries

but really it was the crown and tresury aka church gave order to redshields to fund both sides

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Expeditionary_Force_Siberia

really now?