The Vatican would rather Henry VIII schism'd from The Church than grant him an annulment.

That was political though

Because the conditions of his marriage didn't meet requirement for an annulment

It's that important.

Bullshit it was politicl

Yoou can argue the HRE as much as you want, the simple fact of the matter was, politics or not:

Henry and Catherine's marriage was valid and there was no case for an annulment.

They gave him how many annulments?

it was also not long after the council in florence which outlawed divorce and remarriage.
which, while uncommon, happened in western europe

Just because a council clarifies and codifies something, doesn't mean it wasn't that before.

any historical source will tell you that it did happen and was allowed by the church, if rarely

ok, but why was it happening

Otherwise why did the councils have to speak out against heresy

Because it was needed at the time

divorce and remarriage?

It obviously needed to be clarified, because even though the bible is pretty clear on it, some people still don't get the message.

church fathers arent exactly unanimous on it either.

lmao the bible is prettt clear on it

which one, the douai rheymes?

or the eternal kjv

The Bible is very clear indeed:

1) Don't put away except for the cause of fornication
2) If you put away your husband/wife, don't remarry, because it is adultery

second point is nowhere near clear

Okay, then prove it. Because as I see it, it reads incredibly clearly.

i never would have thought you can read it that way before i got in touch with the wonderful world of internet zealotry

dasick post scripture

lol prove it, how? that my reading comprehension is above 75%?

How pompous

just show us where you think it's not clear, is it Luke?

matthew 19:9

**Matthew 19:9 - Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition (DRA)**

```Dust


<9> And I say to you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and he that shall marry her that is put away, committeth adultery. ```

it reads as

if fornication==true
adultery = false

thank u

how do you read it as?

As in, separating from a person for any other cause than adultery is illegitimate. Now, even if the cause for someone separating is legitimate, one shouldn't marry that person, which is why the apostles say that one shouldn't marry whoever has been put away

From my understanding, annulments are allowed in such cases where Fornication is indeed true. Which means the marriage was never valid

Lmao no

An annulment can only be caused by something at the time of the marriage

gotcha

It would be the case, for example, if there was "adultery" at the time of marriage, because then the intentions, and vows, etc, are false

The marriage also has to be open to children

So being infertile is not something that means annulment