feudalism didn’t have commodify production

therefor there was no capital

What does this have to do with private ownership?

Yes, capitalism has commodity production

But feudalism and slave society still had private property

because the mop is used to create commodities

marx said that capital refers to a capitalist's investment in labor-power, seen as the only source of surplus-value.

This is irrelevant

Slave society and feudalism still had private ownership of the MOP

That’s my conclusion

"When, towards the end of the Middle Ages, there arose a new mode of production which could not be carried on under the then existing feudal and guild forms of property, this manufacture, which had outgrown the old property relations, created a new property form, private property. And for manufacture and the earliest stage of development of big industry, private property was the only possible property form; the social order based on it was the only possible social order." Engels

ewww

do you have schizophrenia

I want my holes filled up

okay dokie

nah with dick

nah that is inappropriate

rip in pieces

one of the left's biggest mistakes is ostracizing policemen and military personnel

they are important for the revolutionary cause even if you think that they are morally dubious

Police are meant to be counterrevolutionary

As for the soldiers

https://youtu.be/nRyRlQ89Jc0

"The soldier has handed in his gun and become a worker again. From a great distance they stood from the war, the generals."

https://youtu.be/bjBmtkW3Tl8

As you can see, they only stop the revolutions. Many of them would agree with the protesters, but they can't join.

The military and police are just the state's instruments in production to protect private property

Very nazbol.

Imperial russian + soviet flags.

Nazbol gang

monbol tbh

H

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5ULfxtuykxo

pp

Hmmm

Thankfully im nazbol.

Hey

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