maybe

ppl fled from E Germany to W Germany

that is all I'm gonna say

Your first claim

yeah west germany was richer

was that east german economy was behind west germans after ww2

it wasnt

that was a lie

I have already shown that

you've shown that total factor productivity was higher

that's not gdp or gdp per capita

Look in the journal man

and in the 40's the soviets took a lot of its industry

June read the journal

I provided a source

can't you quote the relevant bits

okay first

This line of research broadly agrees on the comparatively greater importance of post-war dismantling in East Germany. However, there still appears to be no clear consensus on the quantitative impact of these initial conditions, and on why they should have put East Germany on a path of persistent divergence from West Germany. Do relative factor endowments explain output and productivity performance in early post-war Germany? Do differences in factor endowments contribute to explaining why the two German economies evolved so differently after World War II?

This paper argues they do not. Upon careful re-examination of the evidence, we find that while movements in output as well as factor endowments and proportions were substantial, they are only second-order effects. Instead, what dominates the evidence is a combination of dramatic swings in total factor productivity (TFP). One is a veritable collapse in TFP following the breakdown of the German war economy, which we find in both parts of Germany. The other is a divergence between West German and East German TFP levels. The latter turned East German industry from having a non-trivial productivity lead over its western counterpart in 1946 to trailing West German productivity by the late 1940s, and rapidly losing ground.

The war-induced decline of TFP has been noticed in previous research. Sleifer (2006) showed that it had occurred in both East and West between 1936 and 1950. Eichengreen and Ritschl (2009) found that TFP in West Germany all but collapsed at the end of the war and subsequently recovered rapidly. This implies that movements in TFP were the dominant driver of West German economic growth between 1945

When do we explore my arguments?

Ur arguments are clearly refuted by the Prophet as he forbade the consumption of pork

checkmate

Total factor productivity:

also called multi-factor productivity, is usually measured as the ratio of aggregate output (e.g., GDP) to aggregate inputs.

the journal lays out TFP relationship to GDP

and the collapse of east german economy before even 1950

BY

the way

I looked into the source you provided

this paper doesn't support your point

its as expected BS

"West Germany began to lead East Germany in
industrial labor productivity well before the economic reforms of 1948 could make their
mark.Themajorfactorcontributingtothis earlydivergenceweredisproportionsin industrial
structure caused by the division of Germany"

the paper is arguing that the loss in tfp from 1946-1948 was caused by the division of germany and how it impacted east germany's industry

"If wartime destruction and post-war dismantling were not the origins of relative East German
underperformance, communism seems to be the obvious next candidate. Still, in the short run,
this explanation is inadequate. The productivity gap emerged before 1948 in a period when
both parts of the German economy were heavily controlled and market incentives did not function. The continued presence of distorted price and incentive structures in East Germany was
surely detrimental, but therewere other conditions that would have been highly unfavorable for
sustained growth under any policy regime."

"Arguably, the most critical, although not the only one, was the division of Germany. Until
1945, the later GDR was deeply integrated into a much larger German economy. According
to official estimates shown in table 7, half the net output of East German industry in 1936
was sold in other parts of the country. An even larger share of manufactures consumed in the
East was produced elsewhere within Germany. Foreign-trade dependence was similar in different regions of the Reich, but the input–output links between them were much less critical for
West Germany. At low levels of output, the West remained largely self-sufficient in industrial production until the late 1940s, while the East faced severe input–output bottlenecks immediately after the war.
These bottlenecks were the consequence of the industrial structure that East Germany had
inherited, dominated by higher order manufactures, mostly consumer goods. The production
of the key raw materials and intermediate inputs concentrated almost exclusively in the West"

dude read your own quotes

1945 onward is soviet control

it's arguing that the primary cause was the division of germany itself, which hurt the east by virtue of the fact it was comprised mainly of higher order production predicated on the lower order production of the west

about to start info dump

could u just like, copy paste the "conclusion" bit of the article?