Message from @Capitán Alatriste
Discord ID: 574289246181916705
Would've been many steps along the way
idk, I haven't seen anyone talk about Aurochs and gobekli tepe in the same context yet.
Or postulating ancient herding techniques
Another explanation could be highly religious hunter-gatherers but that seems less likely
Have you heard about the Eye of the Sahara Atlantis theory?
Nah. I'm fairly certain they were more sedentary than hunter-gatherers, but more mobile than a purely agrarian society.
They were the first cowboys lol
Yeah, I've heard about it
It's all so interesting. We could've been around for so much longer then we thought
Look more into the Yamnaya and the Indo-European expansion
If you haven't already
They might have been a 'Mongol invasion' that was lost to oral istory
I'll do that
Genetically, only the Finns/Sami were unaffected (I think), and the Swedish seem to have mixed with them freely both men and women, and kept a distinction
Which indicates that they are the only group that wasn't raped/pillaged/absorbed
Typical swedes
Fended off rape from a literal world conquering nomadic warlord population in ancient times, yet can't do the same for some lowly Muslim immigrants lol
our last "proper" Prime Minister
Atleast thatcher had them ladyballs
Aint cucking the iron lady
@Capitán Alatriste My point was, that during the Roman era, the people of North Africa were closer to the North side of the Mediterranean and more intertwined than they are today.
There's been a huge divergence in the last 1800 years after the fall of Rome and the spread of Islam.
So today's North African populations are not a great representation of historical populations
The North African population of today is mostly Arab, with the exception of Morocco and Algeria where they are berbers
i.e. historical Egypt was more Greek in the past than Arab like today
In Egypt, the rulers were Ptolemaic, however most of the peasantry were still native North Africans
Any way you put it, there were very few to no sub-Saharan Africans in Roman auxiliaries
Very güd boi
Likely rather the opposite. That is to say the Ancient Greek were closer to the Mediterraneans they inherited civilization from. This seems clear from the timeline (civilization starting in river valleys in thee ME and NA, eventually moving to the ancient Minoans and finally Greece a couple thousand years in). The paleogenetics concurs although there is admixture along the way.....
Well your both wrong. They have found Roman forts deep into north africa
Still doesn't mean there's black Germans lol
Well of course not
I was just noting that the misnomer that the Romans kept relatively close to the shore is a falsity.
Oh, no. That wasn't my point lol
Someone earlier said that blacks had always been in Germany, and there's no native Germans.
@Fitzydog why do you think it's called `schwarzwald` ?
because of the niggers that lived there
<:pepe_smug:560207654207750154>
<:think_madpepe:378717098630971395>
@Goblin_Slayer_Floki
Yes they have found Roman forts in Africa. *How old were those forts?* What I am trying to get across is a sense of scale. In Sumer starting in 4100BC, in Egypt about 3000. We don't get to the *Greek Dark Ages* until 1200BC. Again for scale the Olmec had already happened at this point (1500BC) n the other side of the planet without other Med cultures to learn from. The city of Rome was founded in 800BC. So yess there are Roman forts in Africa. There are *American* forts in Aafrica too.......
So statements like "the Egyptians were more Greek" is kind of like telling your grandfather that he inherited your son's eyes......
<:think_madpepe:378717098630971395>
That's a black man