Good morning, gentlemen.

My main problem with proofs is that there's a question I have that no one is answering. So I have 2 sets X and Y that follow a known rule. I want to prove that X = Y, and the definition of equivalence is that X is a subset of Y, and Y is a subset of X. Though, my question is, if there's known set rules for both X and Y, why not just show the set rules are equivalent? The alternative would be to show that some object a is in both X and Y.

Because rules are rules, they are not things of equivalency.

I know it's a tautalogical statement, but you are twisting your goal into showing that the rules are sets, and they are not.

The rules of a set determines the elements of the set though. If the rules are equivalent, shouldnt they have all the same elements?

2+3 = 5
1+4 = 5

The rules are equivalent, the elements are not.

I'm not sure if this is similar given that sets are an unordered collection of objects, and the definition of equivalent sets is that they have all the same objects. The idea is that the output of these rules must be equivalent.

And if the rules are equivalent, then the output sets are equivalent.

I don't see your point.

Cause he’s John cena

Why can't i show rules are equivalent?

If I am proving an equivalence like this
2x = 1/2(4x)
It makes sense you wouldnt comparing set rules since comparing them to unordered collections makes no sense.
It must be true that for any given x that this equivalency holds.

@Nawalter Jizney

No John Cena references

Why? You can’t see them

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Only drinking water

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@Nawalter Jizney LOL

@Jack Mehoff https://youtu.be/qxGacJxTqVE

Use this as motivation

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@Jack Mehoff https://youtu.be/-55S_fYuz4I

Here's a better version

Better indeed

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For me it's either Clout ruler temple or this

He got some some good moves too

@Jack Mehoff Baurus is Shogun's ancestor

???

What is this in reference to

https://youtu.be/cEj79TpDCgc

Oh the albums

is there a spanish speaker here ?

yo quiero practicar espanol para mi examen

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