Message from @The Big Oof
Discord ID: 488241231961522176
let me find it
@SilverLining The NYT did mention that C students who were "Termites" did see less success than those who made "As"
"He found that gifted children did not fit the existing stereotypes often associated with them: they were not weak and sickly social misfits, but in fact were generally taller, in better health, better developed physically, and better adapted socially than other children."
physically, yes
they probably were better off
Which actually kinda forwards the well-proven notion that IQ is correlated to nutrition and education
Alright
You're not staying within the boundaries of what is currently being argued
Whether or not IQ is correlated with nutrition is irrelevant right now
I know, but you mentioned they were "better off"
Also
that's one of the ways
From the same wikipedia article you just quoted
literally
the primary way mentioned
the next line
"Additionally, those in the gifted group were generally successful in their careers: Many received awards recognizing their achievements. Though many of the children reached exceptional heights in adulthood, not all did. Terman explored the causes of obvious talent not being realized, exploring personal obstacles, education, and lack of opportunity as causes."
that was psychology today
not wikipedia
it was in wikipedia, too, but it doesn't matter
I was going through the tabs holding control f
trying to find that
also
on wikipedia
"However, the majority of study participants' lives were more mundane. By the 4th volume of Genetic Studies of Genius, Terman had noted that as adults, his subjects pursued common occupations "as humble as those of policeman, seaman, typist and filing clerk""
also
"Moreover, Terman meddled in his subject's lives, giving them letters of recommendation for jobs and college and pulling strings at Stanford to help them get admitted."
So they did have innate advantages
and terman's writings, in which he admitted there wasn't a strong correlation, were still biased
Okay, again
as he desperately wanted this study to prove something
What is being argued is not that this study means anything
I already said it would be dumb on my part to cite a study I've never even looked in to
The point is that it does not reach the conclusions you claimed it did
" terman's writings, in which he admitted there wasn't a strong correlation, were still biased"
He didn't say that, I just read the quote you sent me
Why would he reference his study anyway if he thought it disproved himself?
"we have seen that intellect and achievement"
From what I understand he was proud of it
how does that not admit that there isn't a strong correlation?