Message from @Aqua
Discord ID: 651618880430538773
It is only able to exist because there is no concrete definition of a pile of sand.
get more studies
lol
that's what I'm saying
right now there's no evidence
If you have a clear definition of a "pile of sand", you can't have this paradox.
so its about 99.99% speculation
It is, as a result, just a confirmation of Wittgenstein's critique of philosophy: it's all just linguistic confusion.
A pile of sand is two or more grains. đ
The question being asked is categorically incorrect.
Paradox solved.
Really, you are telling me in a way that I am interpreting the data in correctly with false premises. I wonder if they even have a study that fulfill your conditions for evidence.
"Does intelligence scale with extraversion?" is incorrect as a *question* unless you have a concrete and workable definition of intelligence.
@Slavic Infidel based and empiricistpilled
And no.
(and of extraversion)
You can interpret all you like out of my argument, but the essence of it is this:
You have to get a clear and reliable definition of the traits being evaluated.
Or you get the "IQ tests only measure your ability to take IQ tests" problem.
holy, getting a study, might as well one that meets your conditions is hard. I will keep looking.
I have a pretty high verbal IQ but a pretty low typing IQ and a pretty medium smoke signal IQ.
By the way, have you ever heard of a guy named "Biker"? @Slavic Infidel
He used to have a pfp like yours, with the same guy.
I briefly saw someone with the same pfp as me some time ago but didn't interact.
this is what I found
and it says
basically
the effect was a very tiny positive
that turned into a very tiny negative
```Correlations between the date of publication of the study and the observed extraversionâintelligence correlations were generally negative, which suggested a change in the magnitude of the extraversionâintelligence relation over time. Furthermore, the estimated effect size between extraversion and intelligence for studies conducted in the year 2000 and later was (p < .05), indicating that not only has the magnitude of the correlation decreased, but also that the direction of the correlation has changed from positive to slightly negative.```
yeah
which tells me pretty much nothing
other than that the relationship is not well understood
and is probably insignificant
at least according to the present evidence
it implies that the findings of correlation between the two traits are circumstantial
rather than profound
Sorry, got distracted. Looking at how Aryan the Spanish royal family is.