Message from @DannyNC1
Discord ID: 779772612775247955
Phileos is the love you feel towards your closest friends and family members.
Ok thanks for clearing that up
Eros is the love you feel and reciprocate towards your spouse, and it's more sexual in nature. Agape is not a feeling but an action you are dutiful to exemplify.
So these people tauting the "God loves everyone" really don't understand the love the Biblical authors and Jesus meant. They mislead the audience to their own peril.
@Smash Boy I know you say that about a difference between agape and phileo as you explain it, but that is a common misconception. If you actually look at some aspects about its use in the NT Greek text, you see that they are used interchangeably, and thus direct synonyms. Otherwise there are big problems that develop.
No, it's actually agape, CS Lewis even acknowledges when he talks about the four loves.
Hang on I'll link you to an article about it.
It doesn't matter what CS Lewis said about it when I'm telling you about the Bible's use which can be seen from patient study on one's own.
If you don't believe me, I can point out some things that will demonstrate why that's the case.
That's the Greek version of Mathew 19:19.
I'm not going to refer to that. Don't get ahead of yourself.
Spoofy text confirmed
I literally showed you that the word love in those passages is the one referred to as Agape in context and the one taught by Jesus as most important.
I will literally show you that agape and phileo in how the Bible uses them are equal. They must be equal or there will be theological and other problems that will result.
Equal in what sense?
Equal as direct synonyms, no difference in meaning
@Milkgamer55 when two of smartest kid in class have different answers. 😂
That is false, but show me where exactly are they synonyms and furthermore, how exactly do they present theological problems if they are different?
@DeButcher That’s when showdown time happens
Prov. 18:13, "He that answereth a matter before he heareth it, it is folly and shame unto him." Like I said, don't get ahead of yourself.
I just asked you afterwards to show me.
I'm not getting ahead of myself.
Patience!
~~I am no padawan~~
Look at John 3:16 first--when God says that He loves us, it's agape, how you would think. But, then go check out John 16:27 and tell me what's there.
If it is as you say, the agape is better, higher, different than phileo, and phileo is some family or friend love, what's up with that?
John 16:27, if what you say about phileo is true, God's love for us somehow degraded from John 3:16 to John 16:27?
Now, you said we are supposed to agape love our neighbor in Mt. 19:19, but what about 1 Cor. 16:22 that we are only supposed to phileo love Jesus?
So the premise here is that you think phileos is a degraded form of love. I think you need to justify this in light of scripture as I never implied they are degraded forms.
A wife is only supposed to phileo love her husband in Titus 2:4, but a husband only to agape love his wife Eph. 4:28?
The way you put it, yes
So it's a false premise
And the classic misconception and false teaching about agape v. phileo
No, you misinterpreted my statement.
I don’t even understand what you guys are talking about
Something about the Greek words for love
No, I caught your statement right, but I was trying to help you wean off of a bunch of Greek scholarship nonsense to show that the Bible itself uses the words interchangeably.
Dude, there are inherent grammatical differences. You have not proved at all that they are grammatically the same. That's dishonest. The best you did was that they are both integral to our relationship as Christians and God. I never denied this. I said that between phileos and agape, Agape is the most important and the most foundational. The latter is key.
You're running in circles, and, if you're a Christian, you're accusing a fellow brother publicly of dishonesty.
"Greek scholarship nonsense"
Bruh, all I did was show you the original Koiné greek rendition. Wtf.